If someone sues you fraudulently, can the judge turn around and prosecute her for fraud?

To make a long story short, two years ago, my husband was pulling into a business parking lot, and a woman was walking out of the building with her head down. He stopped about 8 feet before hitting her, but she claims that he hit her. After my husband had left the store, the woman (an employee at the store) asked the other clerk who he was. The other clerk (who we were familiar with and friendly to) told the woman "oh, that's Dr. S*****.
About two days later, my husband gets a call from the police who are investigating this "hit-and-run". Their investigation shows absolutely nothing happened, so it was closed.
The woman proceeded to sue him through his insurance company, and claimed that she had back pain, etc… from the "accident".
The woman went to about 10 doctors who all said she didn't have an injury (except for one). This woman has a history of drug problems (perscription), and a history of being hit by cars!
It is a total fraud case, so what will they do to her?
Also, this woman didn't even go to the doctor right away… she went two days later. His insurance company refuses to settle with her because they say it is blatant fraud.

I mean, how likely is it that someone who has reportedly been hit by cars 3 times (including once when she worked at a car wash!), prove that they are NOT defrauding his insurer? Why is my husband the one being sued, instead of criminal fraud charges filed against this woman?

She has wage garnishments, unpaid student loan debt, and a history of prescription drug and marijuana abuse.

How will the judge handle this… will it be like Judge Judy, where she makes the other party pay for the costs because they were in the wrong?

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